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My personal opinion is that, whatever its meaning, have/has got is the present perfect tense form of 'get'. And 'have' is, therefore, an auxiliary verb.
英熟語ターゲットRについてです。 この前購入してやり始めたのですが、やり方が分かりません。 ①熟語が並んでいるページで軽く暗記 ②長文のページを読む ③日本語訳を読む ④分からなかった文構造や熟語を調べて書き込む ⑤すらすら読めるまで音読する このようにやっているのですが ...
First, I don't think we have any grammatical distinction between modal and auxiliary verbs in English, except that the modals don't have -s in the third person singular. The real difference is a semantic one: modal ve...
i met some questions when i study new word. when these 2 words are used as adj, the similarity between them puzzles me, so what's the difference between these words? can you tell me the details and give me some concre...
The periphrastic perfect (i.e. perfect with an auxiliary verb) developed out of constructs that can be traced back to late republican Latin. These construction became grammaticalized in Romance and most likely loaned ...
Hi all, I was wondering whether the omission of the auxiliary verb TO DO is necessary, informal or plain wrong in questions like the following: "Who...
Hi all, I'm translating some guidelines related to Expenditures and I'm having a hard time differentiating between Accounting Assistant and Accounting Auxiliary. I don't know if there is an Auxiliar de contabilidad y ...
All the dictionaries and grammar books I have consulted say that "not" followed by an auxiliary negates the auxiliary, as opposed to negating what follows the auxiliary.
"Auxiliary verb" is a grammatical category, and verbs in this category display certain syntactic features. For example, auxiliary verbs undergo inversion: so am I, so will I.
Hello, everyone Consider this sentence: (1) You may have read this book. Where should the adverb already be used? (2) You already may have read this book. (3) You may already have read this book. (4) You may have alre...
